Mortgage Servicing Fraud
occurs post loan origination when mortgage servicers use false statements and book-keeping entries, fabricated assignments, forged signatures and utter counterfeit intangible Notes to take a homeowner's property and equity.
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A condo was purchased and at the time the mortgage broker said that the project was unwarrantable by Fannie Mae.  The payments are made to Aurora but the owner of the debt is Freddie Mac. 

If Fannie wouldn't warrant the project how did Freddie end up owning the debt?  Would this be a toxic loan that they had to buy?  Am I looking at this right?  I'd like a better understanding of how this might have happened.
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